THE IRRELEVANCE OF GAY PROMISCUITY: DaleA

[replying to Eve's post here]

Where have we established as an undoubted fact that gay men are more promiscuous than straight men? And how is this known? If the measure is simple number of sexual partners then perhaps gay men are at the higher end of the spectrum. If, however, the measure is acting on opportunities, I suspect the situation changes. In my experience men seeking women act on each and every opportunity that comes along. These come along infrequently. With gay men opportunities for sex may be much more frequent. A straight guy who grabs 100% of his chances for casual sex strikes me as much more promiscuous than a gay man who takes up 50% of his chances. This would hold even if the straight man has two partners and the gay man 200. I think this line of reasoning confuses absolute numbers with rates, which is not a particularly valid line of reasoning.

My further thought is that if straight men are less promiscuous, how do we account for the armies of prostitutes lining the streets in virtually every city? It seems obvious that gay men are not their customers. Every time I read about a crackdown the description of the clients runs to: married suburban father of two. Any study that shows a high rate of fidelity without finding these customers should be suspect. I suspect that gay men are generally more honest about their sexual adventures.
posted by Eve at 8:57 PM | link

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